Download BCS Foundation Certificate In Information Security Management Principles V9-0.CISMP-V9.VCEDumps.2024-04-11.42q.vcex

Vendor: BCS
Exam Code: CISMP-V9
Exam Name: BCS Foundation Certificate In Information Security Management Principles V9-0
Date: Apr 11, 2024
File Size: 45 KB
Downloads: 1

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Demo Questions

Question 1
What form of risk assessment is MOST LIKELY to provide objective support for a security Return on Investment case?
  1. ISO/IEC 27001.
  2. Qualitative.
  3. CPNI.
  4. Quantitative
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Quantitative risk assessment is the process of objectively measuring risk by assigning numerical values to the probability of an event occurring and its potential impact. This method is most likely to provide objective support for a security Return on Investment (ROI) case because it allows for the calculation of potential losses in monetary terms, which can be directly compared to the cost of implementing security measures. By quantifying risks and their financial implications, organizations can make informed decisions about where to allocate resources and how to prioritize security investments to maximize ROI. This approach is particularly useful when making a business case to stakeholders who require clear, financial justification for security expenditures.
Quantitative risk assessment is the process of objectively measuring risk by assigning numerical values to the probability of an event occurring and its potential impact. This method is most likely to provide objective support for a security Return on Investment (ROI) case because it allows for the calculation of potential losses in monetary terms, which can be directly compared to the cost of implementing security measures. By quantifying risks and their financial implications, organizations can make informed decisions about where to allocate resources and how to prioritize security investments to maximize ROI. This approach is particularly useful when making a business case to stakeholders who require clear, financial justification for security expenditures.
Question 2
Why might the reporting of security incidents that involve personal data differ from other types of security incident?
  1. Personal data is not highly transient so its 1 investigation rarely involves the preservation of volatile memory and full forensic digital investigation.
  2. Personal data is normally handled on both IT and non-IT systems so such incidents need to be managed in two streams.
  3. Data Protection legislation normally requires the reporting of incidents involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority.
  4. Data Protection legislation is process-oriented and focuses on quality assurance of procedures and governance rather than data-focused event investigation
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The reporting of security incidents involving personal data is distinct from other types of incidents primarily due to the legal obligations imposed by data protection legislation. Such laws typically mandate that organizations report certain types of breaches involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority within a specified timeframe. This requirement is in place to ensure prompt and appropriate response to potential privacy risks affecting individuals' rights and freedoms. Failure to comply can result in significant penalties for the organization.The reporting process also often includes notifying affected individuals, especially if there is a high risk of adverse effects on their rights and freedoms12.The UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act 2018 outline the duty of organizations to report certain personal data breaches to the relevant supervisory authority, such as the ICO, within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach1.The ICO's guide on personal data breaches provides detailed instructions on how to recognize a breach, the reporting process, and the importance of having robust breach detection, investigation, and internal reporting procedures12.
The reporting of security incidents involving personal data is distinct from other types of incidents primarily due to the legal obligations imposed by data protection legislation. Such laws typically mandate that organizations report certain types of breaches involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority within a specified timeframe. This requirement is in place to ensure prompt and appropriate response to potential privacy risks affecting individuals' rights and freedoms. Failure to comply can result in significant penalties for the organization.The reporting process also often includes notifying affected individuals, especially if there is a high risk of adverse effects on their rights and freedoms12.
The UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act 2018 outline the duty of organizations to report certain personal data breaches to the relevant supervisory authority, such as the ICO, within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach1.
The ICO's guide on personal data breaches provides detailed instructions on how to recognize a breach, the reporting process, and the importance of having robust breach detection, investigation, and internal reporting procedures12.
Question 3
A system administrator has created the following 'array' as an access control for an organisation.
  • Developers: create files, update files.
  • Reviewers: upload files, update files.
  • Administrators: upload files, delete fifes, update files.
What type of access-control has just been created?
  1. Task based access control.
  2. Role based access control.
  3. Rule based access control.
  4. Mandatory access control.
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The access control method described is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). In RBAC, access permissions are based on the roles within an organization, and users are assigned to these roles based on their responsibilities and qualifications. Each role has a defined set of access permissions to perform certain operations. This method simplifies management and ensures that only authorized users can perform actions relevant to their role. For instance, 'Developers' can create and update files, 'Reviewers' can upload and update files, and 'Administrators' have the rights to upload, delete, and update files. This aligns with the RBAC model where permissions are grouped by role rather than by individual user, making it easier to manage and audit.
The access control method described is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). In RBAC, access permissions are based on the roles within an organization, and users are assigned to these roles based on their responsibilities and qualifications. Each role has a defined set of access permissions to perform certain operations. This method simplifies management and ensures that only authorized users can perform actions relevant to their role. For instance, 'Developers' can create and update files, 'Reviewers' can upload and update files, and 'Administrators' have the rights to upload, delete, and update files. This aligns with the RBAC model where permissions are grouped by role rather than by individual user, making it easier to manage and audit.
Question 4
How does the use of a 'single sign-on' access control policy improve the security for an organisation implementing the policy?
  1. Password is better encrypted for system authentication.
  2. Access control logs are centrally located.
  3. Helps prevent the likelihood of users writing down passwords.
  4. Decreases the complexity of passwords users have to remember.
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Single sign-on (SSO) is an access control policy that allows users to authenticate with multiple applications and services by logging in only once. This approach improves security by reducing the number of credentials users must manage, which in turn decreases the likelihood of users writing down passwords. When users have to remember multiple complex passwords, they are more likely to write them down, use simple passwords, or repeat the same password across different services, all of which are security risks. SSO simplifies the login process, which can lead to stronger, unique passwords and reduce the risk of password-related breaches.
Single sign-on (SSO) is an access control policy that allows users to authenticate with multiple applications and services by logging in only once. This approach improves security by reducing the number of credentials users must manage, which in turn decreases the likelihood of users writing down passwords. When users have to remember multiple complex passwords, they are more likely to write them down, use simple passwords, or repeat the same password across different services, all of which are security risks. SSO simplifies the login process, which can lead to stronger, unique passwords and reduce the risk of password-related breaches.
Question 5
In terms of security culture, what needs to be carried out as an integral part of security by all members of an organisation and is an essential component to any security regime?
  1. The 'need to known principle.
  2. Verification of visitor's ID
  3. Appropriate behaviours.
  4. Access denial measures
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The concept of a security culture within an organization emphasizes that security is not solely a technical issue but also a behavioral one. Appropriate behaviors are essential because they embody the organization's values and beliefs about security. These behaviors ensure that all members of the organization understand and adhere to security policies and procedures, thereby reducing risk and reinforcing the security regime. This includes following the 'need to know' principle, verifying IDs, and implementing access denial measures, but it is the appropriate behaviors that integrate these actions into a coherent and effective security culture.
The concept of a security culture within an organization emphasizes that security is not solely a technical issue but also a behavioral one. Appropriate behaviors are essential because they embody the organization's values and beliefs about security. These behaviors ensure that all members of the organization understand and adhere to security policies and procedures, thereby reducing risk and reinforcing the security regime. This includes following the 'need to know' principle, verifying IDs, and implementing access denial measures, but it is the appropriate behaviors that integrate these actions into a coherent and effective security culture.
Question 6
What advantage does the delivery of online security training material have over the distribution of printed media?
  1. Updating online material requires a single edit. Printed material needs to be distributed physically.
  2. Online training material is intrinsically more accurate than printed material.
  3. Printed material is a 'discoverable record' and could expose the organisation to litigation in the event of an incident.
  4. Online material is protected by international digital copyright legislation across most territories.
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
The delivery of online security training material offers several advantages over printed media. One of the key benefits is the ease of updating content. When updates are required, online materials can be edited quickly and efficiently, with changes being immediately available to all users.This contrasts with printed materials, which would require a new physical version to be produced and distributed, a process that is both time-consuming and resource-intensive1.Furthermore, online training materials can be accessed from anywhere at any time, providing flexibility and convenience for learners.They also allow for interactive elements, such as quizzes and simulations, which can enhance the learning experience1.Additionally, online materials can be tracked for usage and completion, enabling organizations to monitor compliance with training requirements2.While option C mentions a 'discoverable record,' this refers to the legal concept that materials may be used as evidence in litigation. However, this is not an advantage of online over printed media, as both can be discoverable. Option B's claim that online materials are intrinsically more accurate is not necessarily true, as accuracy depends on the content's quality, not the delivery method. Option D is incorrect because while online materials are protected by copyright laws, this is not an exclusive benefit over printed materials, which are also protected.
The delivery of online security training material offers several advantages over printed media. One of the key benefits is the ease of updating content. When updates are required, online materials can be edited quickly and efficiently, with changes being immediately available to all users.This contrasts with printed materials, which would require a new physical version to be produced and distributed, a process that is both time-consuming and resource-intensive1.
Furthermore, online training materials can be accessed from anywhere at any time, providing flexibility and convenience for learners.They also allow for interactive elements, such as quizzes and simulations, which can enhance the learning experience1.Additionally, online materials can be tracked for usage and completion, enabling organizations to monitor compliance with training requirements2.
While option C mentions a 'discoverable record,' this refers to the legal concept that materials may be used as evidence in litigation. However, this is not an advantage of online over printed media, as both can be discoverable. Option B's claim that online materials are intrinsically more accurate is not necessarily true, as accuracy depends on the content's quality, not the delivery method. Option D is incorrect because while online materials are protected by copyright laws, this is not an exclusive benefit over printed materials, which are also protected.
Question 7
What form of training SHOULD developers be undertaking to understand the security of the code they have written and how it can improve security defence whilst being attacked?
  1. Red Team Training.
  2. Blue Team Training.
  3. Black Hat Training.
  4. Awareness Training.
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Developers should undergo Awareness Training to understand the security of the code they have written and how it can improve security defense while being attacked. This type of training educates developers on the importance of security considerations throughout the software development lifecycle (SDLC). It covers best practices for secure coding, common vulnerabilities and how to avoid them, and the impact of code security on the overall security posture of an application. By being aware of security principles and the potential threats, developers can write more secure code, which is crucial for defending against attacks.
Developers should undergo Awareness Training to understand the security of the code they have written and how it can improve security defense while being attacked. This type of training educates developers on the importance of security considerations throughout the software development lifecycle (SDLC). It covers best practices for secure coding, common vulnerabilities and how to avoid them, and the impact of code security on the overall security posture of an application. By being aware of security principles and the potential threats, developers can write more secure code, which is crucial for defending against attacks.
Question 8
What type of attack could directly affect the confidentiality of an unencrypted VoIP network?
  1. Packet Sniffing.
  2. Brute Force Attack.
  3. Ransomware.
  4. Vishing Attack
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Packet sniffing is a type of network attack that can directly affect the confidentiality of an unencrypted VoIP network. In packet sniffing, an attacker captures data packets as they travel across the network. Since VoIP calls transmit voice data in the form of data packets, an unencrypted VoIP network is particularly vulnerable to this type of attack. The attacker can potentially listen to the conversations or extract sensitive information from these packets.This compromises the confidentiality principle of information security, which aims to protect information from unauthorized disclosure12.Brute Force Attack (B) and Ransomware are more related to the integrity and availability of systems rather than confidentiality. Vishing Attack (D) is a form of phishing which involves social engineering over telephone systems but does not directly affect the network's confidentiality like packet sniffing does.Information Security Management Principles, 3rd Edition1.VoIP Hacking: How It Works & How to Protect Your VoIP Phone3.
Packet sniffing is a type of network attack that can directly affect the confidentiality of an unencrypted VoIP network. In packet sniffing, an attacker captures data packets as they travel across the network. Since VoIP calls transmit voice data in the form of data packets, an unencrypted VoIP network is particularly vulnerable to this type of attack. The attacker can potentially listen to the conversations or extract sensitive information from these packets.This compromises the confidentiality principle of information security, which aims to protect information from unauthorized disclosure12.
Brute Force Attack (B) and Ransomware are more related to the integrity and availability of systems rather than confidentiality. Vishing Attack (D) is a form of phishing which involves social engineering over telephone systems but does not directly affect the network's confidentiality like packet sniffing does.
Information Security Management Principles, 3rd Edition1.
VoIP Hacking: How It Works & How to Protect Your VoIP Phone3.
Question 9
Geoff wants to ensure the application of consistent security settings to devices used throughout his organisation whether as part of a mobile computing or a BYOD approach.
What technology would be MOST beneficial to his organisation?
  1. VPN.
  2. IDS.
  3. MDM.
  4. SIEM.
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the most beneficial technology for ensuring consistent security settings across an organization's devices, especially in a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) or mobile computing environment.MDM allows for the central management of security policies, the enforcement of strong authentication measures, and the protection of corporate data on personal devices. It provides the necessary tools to configure devices remotely, enforce security policies, manage applications, and protect against unauthorized access.This aligns with the Information Security Management Principles, particularly under the domains of Technical Security Controls and Procedural/People Security Controls, as it encompasses both the technology and the policies that govern its use by people within the organization123.Reference: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of understanding the concepts relating to information security management, which includes the knowledge of controls and characteristics that are essential for managing the security of information systems4.Additionally, the benefits of MDM in securing mobile and BYOD environments are well-documented, further supporting its selection as the most appropriate technology forGeoff's requirements123.
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the most beneficial technology for ensuring consistent security settings across an organization's devices, especially in a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) or mobile computing environment.
MDM allows for the central management of security policies, the enforcement of strong authentication measures, and the protection of corporate data on personal devices. It provides the necessary tools to configure devices remotely, enforce security policies, manage applications, and protect against unauthorized access.This aligns with the Information Security Management Principles, particularly under the domains of Technical Security Controls and Procedural/People Security Controls, as it encompasses both the technology and the policies that govern its use by people within the organization123.Reference: The BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles outlines the importance of understanding the concepts relating to information security management, which includes the knowledge of controls and characteristics that are essential for managing the security of information systems4.Additionally, the benefits of MDM in securing mobile and BYOD environments are well-documented, further supporting its selection as the most appropriate technology for
Geoff's requirements123.
Question 10
What Is the first yet MOST simple and important action to take when setting up a new web server?
  1. Change default system passwords.
  2. Fully encrypt the hard disk.
  3. Apply hardening to all applications.
  4. Patch the OS to the latest version
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Changing default system passwords is a fundamental step in securing a new web server. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily found in public documentation or through internet searches, making systems with unchanged default passwords highly vulnerable to unauthorized access. By changing these passwords, an administrator immediately reduces the risk of simple, automated attacks that exploit default credentials.While the other options listed are also important security measures, they are not typically the first action taken. Encrypting the hard disk (B) is a good practice for protecting data at rest, but it does not protect against unauthorized access via default passwords. Hardening applications and patching the OS (D) are critical for reducing the attack surface and protecting against known vulnerabilities, but they are generally performed after ensuring that the system is not accessible with default passwords.
Changing default system passwords is a fundamental step in securing a new web server. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily found in public documentation or through internet searches, making systems with unchanged default passwords highly vulnerable to unauthorized access. By changing these passwords, an administrator immediately reduces the risk of simple, automated attacks that exploit default credentials.
While the other options listed are also important security measures, they are not typically the first action taken. Encrypting the hard disk (B) is a good practice for protecting data at rest, but it does not protect against unauthorized access via default passwords. Hardening applications and patching the OS (D) are critical for reducing the attack surface and protecting against known vulnerabilities, but they are generally performed after ensuring that the system is not accessible with default passwords.
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