Download CompTIA CSA+.CS0-003.Marks4Sure.2024-09-27.100q.tqb

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: CS0-003
Exam Name: CompTIA CSA+
Date: Sep 27, 2024
File Size: 7 MB

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Demo Questions

Question 1
A security analyst detects an email server that had been compromised in the internal network. Users have been reporting strange messages in their email inboxes and unusual network traffic. 
Which of the following incident response steps should be performed next?
  1. Preparation
  2. Validation
  3. Containment
  4. Eradication
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition
After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. 
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition
Question 2
An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?
  1. Eradication
  2. Recovery
  3. Containment
  4. Preparation
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.
Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.
Question 3
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?
  1. The server was configured to use SSI- to securely transmit data
  2. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
  3. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
  4. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers. Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure. Official References:https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answeredhttps://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectiveshttps://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers. Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure. Official References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers
Question 4
A vulnerability management team found four major vulnerabilities during an assessment and needs to provide a report for the proper prioritization for further mitigation. 
Which of the following vulnerabilities should have the highest priority for the mitigation process?
  1. A vulnerability that has related threats and loCs, targeting a different industry
  2. A vulnerability that is related to a specific adversary campaign, with loCs found in the SIEM
  3. A vulnerability that has no adversaries using it or associated loCs
  4. A vulnerability that is related to an isolated system, with no loCs
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
A vulnerability that is related to a specific adversary campaign, with IoCs found in the SIEM, should have the highest priority for the mitigation process. This is because it indicates that the vulnerability is actively being exploited by a known threat actor, and that the organization’s security monitoring system has detected signs of compromise. This poses a high risk of data breach, service disruption, or other adverse impacts. References:How to Prioritize Vulnerabilities Effectively: Vulnerability Prioritization Explained, Section: How to prioritize vulnerabilities step by step to avoid drowning in sea of problems; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.
A vulnerability that is related to a specific adversary campaign, with IoCs found in the SIEM, should have the highest priority for the mitigation process. This is because it indicates that the vulnerability is actively being exploited by a known threat actor, and that the organization’s security monitoring system has detected signs of compromise. This poses a high risk of data breach, service disruption, or other adverse impacts. 
References:
How to Prioritize Vulnerabilities Effectively: Vulnerability Prioritization Explained, Section: How to prioritize vulnerabilities step by step to avoid drowning in sea of problems; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.
Question 5
A security analyst noticed the following entry on a web server log:
Warning:
fopen (http://127.0.0.1:16) : failed to open stream:
Connection refused in /hj/var/www/showimage.php on line 7 
Which of the following malicious activities was most likely attempted?
  1. XSS
  2. CSRF 
  3. SSRF
  4. RCE
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.
The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. 
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.
Question 6
A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account. Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?
  1. Scan the employee's computer with virus and malware tools.
  2. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
  3. Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee.
  4. Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident.
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255. 
In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.
References: 
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255. 
Question 7
A company recently removed administrator rights from all of its end user workstations. An analyst uses CVSSv3.1 exploitability metrics to prioritize the vulnerabilities for the workstations and produces the following information:
    
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?
  1. nessie.explosion
  2. vote.4p
  3. sweet.bike
  4. great.skills
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics:Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. References: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST
nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. 
nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics:
Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. References: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST
Question 8
A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:
    
Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?
  1. Log entry 1 
  2. Log entry 2
  3. Log entry 3
  4. Log entry 4
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. 
Official References:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/
Question 9
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. 
Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
  1. Hostname
  2. Missing KPI
  3. CVE details
  4. POC availability
  5. loCs
  6. npm identifier
Correct answer: CE
Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patchPolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. 
References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patchPolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
Question 10
An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely reason the firewall feed stopped working?
  1. The firewall service account was locked out.
  2. The firewall was using a paid feed.
  3. The firewall certificate expired.
  4. The firewall failed open.
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. 
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.
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