Download CompTIA CSA+.CS0-003.Marks4Sure.2024-12-02.251q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: CS0-003
Exam Name: CompTIA CSA+
Date: Dec 02, 2024
File Size: 4 MB

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Question 1
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).
  1.   Hostname
  2.   Missing KPI
  3.   CVE details
  4.   POC availability
  5.   loCs
  6.   npm identifier
Correct answer: CE
Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patch PolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. References: Server and Workstation Patch Management , Section: Policy; , Section: What is a patch PolicyPatch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024 management policy?
Question 2
A security administrator needs to import Pll data records from the production environment to the test environment for testing purposes. Which of the following would best protect data confidentiality?
  1.   Data masking
  2.   Hashing
  3.   Watermarking
  4.   Encoding
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data
Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data
Question 3
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
  1.   CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L
  2.   CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
  3.   CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
  4.   CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
Question 4
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
  1.   A mean time to remediate of 30 days
  2.   A mean time to detect of 45 days
  3.   A mean time to respond of 15 days
  4.   Third-party application testing
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
Question 5
Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?
  1.   Hacktivist threat
  2.   Advanced persistent threat
  3.   Unintentional insider threat
  4.   Nation-state threat
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources.ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments from known sources.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security | Threats, Best Practices | Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.
Question 6
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
 
Which of the following should be remediated first?
  1.   SQL injection
  2.   RFI
  3.   XSS
  4.   Code injection
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface   Arachni/arachni Wiki   GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. 
These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. 
Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface   Arachni/arachni Wiki   GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode
Question 7
Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two).
  1.   Signal-shielded bag
  2.   Tamper-evident seal
  3.   Thumb drive
  4.   Crime scene tape
  5.   Write blocker
  6.   Drive duplicator
Correct answer: AB
Explanation:
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: , Section: Mobile device forensics Acquisition
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: , Section: Mobile device forensics Acquisition
Question 8
A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks?
  1.   A web application firewall
  2.   A network intrusion detection system
  3.   A vulnerability scanner
  4.   A web proxy
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a tool that can protect web servers from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other web-based threats. A WAF can filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP traffic before it reaches the web server. A WAF can also be configured with rules and policies to detect and prevent specific types of attacks.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3, “Security Architecture and Tool Sets”, page 91; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.0 “Threat and Vulnerability Management”, Objective 1.2 “Given a scenario, analyze the results of a network reconnaissance”, Sub-objective “Web application attacks”, page 9 CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)
A web application firewall (WAF) is a tool that can protect web servers from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other web-based threats. A WAF can filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP traffic before it reaches the web server. A WAF can also be configured with rules and policies to detect and prevent specific types of attacks.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3, “Security Architecture and Tool Sets”, page 91; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.0 “Threat and Vulnerability Management”, Objective 1.2 “Given a scenario, analyze the results of a network reconnaissance”, Sub-objective “Web application attacks”, page 9 CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)
Question 9
Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware. 
The network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive?
  1.   Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
  2.   Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
  3.   Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
  4.   Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
  5.   Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
Correct answer: E
Explanation:
Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12. Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34. References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device, How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag
Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12. 
Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34. 
References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device, How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag
Question 10
Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage?
  1.   Timeline
  2.   Evidence
  3.   Impact
  4.   Scope
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Impact.The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1.The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.
The correct answer is C. Impact.
The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1.
The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.
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