Download CompTIA Network-Certification.N10-009.Marks4Sure.2024-12-10.77q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: N10-009
Exam Name: CompTIA Network-Certification
Date: Dec 10, 2024
File Size: 118 KB

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Demo Questions

Question 1
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology includes checking logs for recent changes?
  1.   Identify the problem.
  2.   Document the findings and outcomes.
  3.   Test the theory to determine cause.
  4.   Establish a plan of action.
Correct answer: A
Question 2
A support agent receives a report that a remote user’s wired devices are constantly disconnecting and have slow speeds. Upon inspection, the support agent sees that the user’s coaxial modern has a signal power of -97 dB.
  1.   Removing any spliters connecte to the line
  2.   Switching the devices to wireless
  3.   Moving the devices closer to the modern
  4.   Lowering the network speed
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and slow speeds. Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them can help improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple lines, which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can maximize signal quality and reduce potential points of failure.Network References:CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting connectivity issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network setups.Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.
A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and slow speeds. 
Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them can help improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.
  • Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple lines, which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.
  • Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can maximize signal quality and reduce potential points of failure.
Network References:
  • CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting connectivity issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.
  • Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network setups.
  • Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.
Question 3
A technician is planning an equipment installation into a rack in a data center that practices hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation. Which of the following directions should the equipment exhaust face when installed in the rack?
  1.   Sides
  2.   Top
  3.   Front
  4.   Rear
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
In a data center that uses hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation, equipment is typically installed so that cool air enters from the cold aisle (front) and hot air is exhausted to the hot aisle (rear). This configuration maximizes cooling efficiency.
In a data center that uses hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation, equipment is typically installed so that cool air enters from the cold aisle (front) and hot air is exhausted to the hot aisle (rear). This configuration maximizes cooling efficiency.
Question 4
A network administrator needs to divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves. Which of the following subnet masks should the administrator use?
  1.   255.255.0.0
  2.   255.255.254.0
  3.   255.255.255.0
  4.   255.255.255.128
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding Subnetting:Original Network: 192.168.1.0/24 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 IP addresses (including network and broadcast addresses).Objective: Divide this network into two equal subnets.Calculating Subnet Mask:New Subnet Mask: To divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves, we need to borrow one bit from the host portion of the address, changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.128 (/25).Subnet Breakdown:First Subnet: 192.168.1.0/25 (192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.127)Second Subnet: 192.168.1.128/25 (192.168.1.128 - 192.168.1.255)Verification:Each subnet now has 128 IP addresses (126 usable IP addresses, excluding the network and broadcast addresses).Comparison with Other Options:255.255.0.0 (/16): Provides a much larger network, not dividing the original /24 network.255.255.254.0 (/23): Also creates a larger subnet, encompassing more than the original /24 network.255.255.255.0 (/24): Maintains the original subnet size, not dividing it.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP addressing.
Understanding Subnetting:
  • Original Network: 192.168.1.0/24 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for 256 IP addresses (including network and broadcast addresses).
  • Objective: Divide this network into two equal subnets.
Calculating Subnet Mask:
  • New Subnet Mask: To divide 192.168.1.0/24 into two equal halves, we need to borrow one bit from the host portion of the address, changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.128 (/25).
Subnet Breakdown:
  • First Subnet: 192.168.1.0/25 (192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.127)
  • Second Subnet: 192.168.1.128/25 (192.168.1.128 - 192.168.1.255)
Verification:
  • Each subnet now has 128 IP addresses (126 usable IP addresses, excluding the network and broadcast addresses).
Comparison with Other Options:
  • 255.255.0.0 (/16): Provides a much larger network, not dividing the original /24 network.
  • 255.255.254.0 (/23): Also creates a larger subnet, encompassing more than the original /24 network.
  • 255.255.255.0 (/24): Maintains the original subnet size, not dividing it.
References:
  • CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP addressing.
Question 5
Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing equipment in a building? (Select two).
  1.   Fire suppression system
  2.   UPS location
  3.   Humidity control
  4.   Power load
  5.   Floor construction type
  6.   Proximity to nearest MDF
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question 6
A network administrator needs to add 255 useable IP addresses to the network. A /24 is currently in use. 
Which of the following prefixes would fulfill this need?
  1.   /23
  2.   /25
  3.   /29
  4.   /32
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.
A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.
Question 7
A systems administrator is configuring a new device to be added to the network. The administrator is planning to perform device hardening prior to connecting the device. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
  1.   Update the network ACLs.
  2.   Place the device in a screened subnet.
  3.   Enable content filtering.
  4.   Change the default admin passwords.
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Changing default admin passwords is a fundamental first step in device hardening to prevent unauthorized access.
Changing default admin passwords is a fundamental first step in device hardening to prevent unauthorized access.
Question 8
A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?
  1.   255.255.255.128
  2.   255.255.255.192
  3.   255.255.255.224
  4.   255.255.255.240
Correct answer: D
Question 9
Which of the following disaster recovery metrics is used to describe the amount of data that is lost since the last backup?
  1.   MTTR
  2.   RTO
  3.   RPO
  4.   MTBF
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Definition of RPO:Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours' worth of data in the event of a disruption.Why RPO is Important:RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss.Comparison with Other Metrics:MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.
  • Definition of RPO:
    • Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.
    • For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours' worth of data in the event of a disruption.
  • Why RPO is Important:
    • RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss.
  • Comparison with Other Metrics:
    • MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.
    • RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.
    • MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.
  • How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:
    • Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.
References:
  • CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.
Question 10
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
  1.   172.16.0.0/24
  2.   192.168.0.0/24
  3.   224.0.0.0/24
  4.   240.0.0.0/24
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding Multicast:Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.Multicast Applications:Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.Appropriate Network Selection:224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.Comparison with Other Options:172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP address ranges and multicast.
  • Understanding Multicast:
    • Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.
  • Multicast Applications:
    • Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.
  • Appropriate Network Selection:
    • 224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.
  • Comparison with Other Options:
    • 172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.
    • 192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.
    • 240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.
References:
  • CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP address ranges and multicast.
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